Hi Ted,
They sold their hall because there isnt many people left in Bundaberg revival fellowship anymore. People have moved to other towns and other people have left all together so it seemed silly to have such a big hall with so few people to attend

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Precisely because it *will* last for millenia. These things may seem trivial to us, living in our comfortable houses, sipping tea, and whining about the weather, perhaps. But the Bible was written for all mankind, not just 21st century grandchildren of England. No, I don’t have an answer for why all of those incidents were included. I do believe there *is* an answer.

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2) “Why would an all-knowing, all-seeing and all-loving God command full-scale genocide throughout the Old Testament? (Deuteronomy 7:1-2, Deuteronomy 20:16)”

This is an important one. The answer is, basically, that God has the right to do so, and has done so since the beginning. That is, He has the right of life and death over all mankind. There’s a reason so much time passed between the promise to Abraham and the Conquest–God was waiting for the sin of the Canaanites to be “full”. Waiting until “genocide” would be a just punishment.

To put it another way, He did so precisely because He *is* all-knowing, all-seeing, and all-loving. He knew the sins of the Canaanites. He saw their idolatries, adulteries, and abominations. He knew what would happen to Israel if they intermingled. Out of His love for Israel, and ultimately His love for all mankind (since the Saviour would come from Israel), He commanded them to utterly destroy the inhabitants of Canaan.

Also, don’t forget just and true in those attributes of God.

More could and should be said, but I would just be rambling if I tried.

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3) “Why do the Old and New Testaments both advocate slavery? (Leviticus 25:44-46, Ephesians 6:5, 1 Timothy 6:1-2) Why does the Bible go into detail about how to obtain slaves, (Leviticus 25:44-46), how to beat slaves, (Exodus 21:20-21) Why did Jesus endorse this? (Luke 12:47-48, Matthew 5:18-19)”

Because, frankly, slavery (one human having ownership rights over the body of another human) is not immoral. Abuse and oppression are immoral, and those can happen with or without slavery. The African slave trade was immoral. But slavery, considered on its own, is not.

Further, striking another, so long as he is not killed and no permanent damage is done, is not considered immoral, at least by the standards of the Law. Our morality is too sensitive.

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4) ” If society has moved on since then – how is Jesus the same yesterday, today and for ever? (Hebrews 13:8)”

Some argue that the Torah was God’s absolute morality made comprehensible to 15th century (B.C.) minds. God’s moral standard has always been higher than what was given through the Law (see the OT prophets, as well as the teachings of Christ, and also Deuteronomy 29:29).

Some things given in the Law were limited culturally and nationally. The principles behind them still apply to us today, but we mustn’t try to apply them exactly as written.

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5) BIBLE TRANSLATIONS

a) “Why did the people responsible for editing the King James Version not believe what the Revival Fellowship teach about tongues? Why are they trusted with this complex task when they got salvation ‘wrong’?”

I don’t agree with either KJV-onlyism or the Revival Fellowship, so I have nothing to say here. Except, well… good point.

b) “Why is the Bible of 400 CE and the Bible today different by dozens of chapters and thousands of parts? Which Bible is the Word of God? And why does man edit it?”

Because man is man? The differences are vastly overrated, at least if you compare more modern (e.g. ESV, NASB) translations with the original manuscripts. There was a lot of sloppy copying between 300 and 1300 A.D. (Try working as a proofreader one of these days. It’s a miracle the Textus Receptus is as close as it is.)

c) “Why are there so many Bible translations with conflicting salvation messages?”

Because a) most moderns can’t read Hebrew and Greek for themselves, so translations are necessary, b) some Hebrew and Greek concepts are difficult to express in modern English, and c) some translations were written with the express purpose of supporting some group’s “unique” take on the Scriptures. Aside from ones belonging to that last group, the “conflict” between the salvation messages in most translations is minor, if it even exists at all.

d) “What makes the King James Version any more divine? How can it be proven ‘more inspired’ than its competitors?”

Nothing at all. Only thing going for it is a higher literary quality than the average, but that is marred by numerous obsolete word forms. The textual basis of the KJV is unsound.

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6) “Why is the scriptural value of Pi (π) incorrect? (1 Kings 7:23-26 & 2 Chronicles 4:2-5) Why didn’t God take this opportunity to demonstrate His all-knowing nature, when inspiring his authors?”

Oh please. Would you have preferred 31 cubits? Pi is irrational–3/1 and 22/7 are equally approximations. Evidently the Hebrew architects used 3/1, and the Scriptures accurately record that. God is not in the business of revealing what we could discover for ourselves.

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7) “Who has ascended to heaven? Enoch? (Genesis 5:24) Elijah? (II Kings 2:11) Jesus? (Mark 16:19) Why did Jesus say no man but himself has ever ascended to heaven? (John 3:13)”

This is not a contradiction. Enoch and Elijah were both taken up into heaven. Jesus *ascended*–went up by His own power.

8) “Why has no historian documented anything about three hours of darkness, dead people coming out of their graves, earthquakes or any other supernatural happening that are alleged to have happen after the Resurrection?”

I’d like to know the answer to this myself. Though, I’m not certain the hours of darkness and the earthquakes weren’t documented.

9) “Why would the Bible teach being pleasant to ‘enemies’ if it would heap coals of fire on their head? (Romans 12:20, Proverbs 25:21-22)”

This is not a contradiction, just a question–What does it mean to “heap coals of fire on their head”?

10) “How would Moses have witnessed and written of his own death? (Deuteronomy 34:5) Or, why would Moses have described himself as the most humble person on the face of the earth? (Numbers 12:3)”

There are several places in Deuteronomy and other books of the Law which were obviously written by a later hand. It does not affect their inspiration, esp. if this later hand was Joshua’s.

11) “Why does the Bible describe angels coming to Earth to mate with humans to produce half-and-half, angel-human offspring? (Genesis 6:1-4)”

a) Why not? b) Is that really what it is talking about? There are at least 3 major schools of thought on this chapter, the angels mating with humans is only one of them.

I’m going to end here for now. Hopefully I’ll remember this website and finish up answering what ones I can. Not that… well, not that my answers are necessarily the best or even the right ones. Some of these are intriguing questions though. And some are just silly. (Pi, for example).

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your interpretation and quoting of scripture seems somewhat erroneous; and as you have no respect for it, i don’t expect anything else.

let’s look at the verse you mention – 18 For the message of the cross is foolishness to those who are perishing, but to us who are being saved it is the power of God. So in answer to your question, No, that’s not what Paul writes.

Paul does not request a sacrifice of intellect to be saved, he proclaims an empowerment of God unto those who are being saved.

Yes they did satisfy*.

I didn’t say that because these “contradictions” your site mentions have been noticed before absolves their inconsistency, but I did point out my answer to that* (one you wouldn’t accept, no doubt).

i think you need to re-think your statement that Jesus cannot validate every word he spoke by his own power. Jesus said that he only says what the Father tells him to say.

maybe you should ponder on that psalm, moron.

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Did you know Jesus threatened “Hell fire” to anyone who used the word “fool”? (Matt 5:22)

Did you also know that Paul admits that the “preaching of the cross” is foolishness? (1 Corinthians 1:18-29) The Greek word translated “foolishness” is μωρία (mōria) from which we get the English word, moronic. Isn’t it interesting that the guy who invented Christianity acknowledges it is foolish to believe it’s central tenet: but God planned it that way “to confound the wise”? It seems that, according to Paul, God wants man to sacrifice his intellect in order to be saved. What a stroke of luck: being a fool is a Christian requisite! I have no doubt the “christian apologetics” you read satisfied your Biblically-allocated intellect.

Your suggestion that the contradictions posted here have “been noticed before” does not absolve them of their inconsistency! I cannot fathom the ‘logic’ that could reach such a conclusion. There only needs to be one contradiction in the Bible to invalidate Jesus’ claim that “scripture cannot be broken” (John 10:35).

A Psalmist writes, “the fool says in his heart, there is no God” (Psalm 14:1-3). Perhaps the two of you can discuss this tomfoolery in warmth of Hell fire, while I come up with something “earth shattering” for you to ponder.

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Christian apologetics have covered the issues you raise.

Revivalists are clearly misinformed when it comes to Christian theology so please clarify, this site is denouncing the Revival Fellowship’s teachings, yes?

If you are trying to denounce God, you are a fool.

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In her radio show, Dr Laura Schlesinger said that, as an observant Orthodox Jew, homosexuality is an abomination according to Leviticus 18:22 and cannot be condoned under any circumstance. The following response is an open letter to Dr. Laura, penned by a US resident, which was posted on the Internet.

Dear Dr. Laura:

James M. Kauffman, Ed.D. Professor Emeritus, Dept. Of Curriculum, Instruction,and Special Education
University of Virginia

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I’ve heard of “liberal Christians” claiming that the errors in the Bible don’t matter because God just “inspired” the book and man has since corrupted it.

This doesn;t cut it for me. My issue with this approach is simply how do they possibly take Christianity with any seriousness as the the Bible is the only book it’s documented in? E.g. if the Bible can’t be relied on for science or morals or modern day ethics etc, how reliable are the claims of supernatural – the very core ideas of Christianity?

JS

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This whole bible thing just keeps getting more and more absurd. Is God the author of confusion?

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